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Originally Posted by mbyron
As a retort, that makes no sense, since the issue is whether F1 is prohibited from throwing to 2B, not whether he's required to do so. Claiming that he's not required to do so can't show that he's not prohibited from doing so.
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I didn't say it. I also think it's ridiculous.
BTW, I balked this during the game, which spurred the discussion. It didn't matter since it was R1 only and he advanced to second on the feint anyway.