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Originally Posted by bob jenkins
The umpire is correct (at least as I view the play in my mind's eye). The rule says that F1 can't throw to an unoccuupied base except for the purpose of making a play. It's clarified in PBUC and MLBUM that "making a play" is umpire judgment, and that judgment is based on whether R1 is attempting to advance (it's a play -- thus legal) or feinting an advance (it's not a play -- thus a balk).
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The one thing that's not specifically mentioned is what happens if F1 decides not to throw at all. I assume that we'd treat it just like any other feint to 2B situation (he doesn't have to throw, but can) but the rule does say "throw."