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Originally Posted by mbyron
Right: the point of (b) is to emphasize that F1 cannot start to throw to 1B, see that the runner has taken off, and then throw to 2B to get him. That would be a balk.
If he is throwing to 2B to make a play on an advancing runner, he must step and throw directly to 2B without interruption. This clause does not contravene any other provision of the balk rule.
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I ask because a balk was called in this situation. With a runner just on first, the pitcher lifted his front leg normally to pitch, but turned and went to 2nd. The umpire called a balk, and the coach tried to site this particular comment. I can't see where the coach is incorrect. I'm assuming there is something that clarifies this further somewhere, because it sure seems it would happen more if it wasn't a balk.
After the game, the UIC commented that it was a judgement call pending if the runner was actually going to second or not. I do not see where that comes into play. I understand the point he was making, I just don't see anything in the ruling referring to judgement on the runner.