[UmpJM]

In regard to whom has the best chance of seeing what is necessary to make this call, I would agree with Tim, Josh, and SLAS that it is most likely the PU and it is unlikely that the BU will have anywhere near as good a view.

But, on to Tim's original question.

Which, if I understand it correctly, is:

"How do you judge whether the runner feinted, or made an attempt that legalizes the F1's move to the unoccupied base?"

On another board, a very knowledgeable umpire suggested the rule of thumb, "More than halfway to the advance base" (I'm paraphrasing) in order to legitimize the move.

For a professional game (or probably even "good" college ball), that strikes me as an appropriate rule of thumb. As the age and skill level of the players decreases, I think it is appropriate to hold the pitcher to a lesser standard. Not because we "change the rules" for younger players, because the rules "mean" different things at different levels. I mean, does anyone call the same strike zone in a HS Varsity game that he does in a Frosh "summer" game?

What constitutes a "feint" in an MLB game is a very different thing than what constitutes a "feint" in a HS JV game.

Although we all complain about the "ambiguity" in the text of the rules, sometimes I think the rule makers were geniuses or, perhaps, idiot savants.

Anyway, as described, I would say that Tim's "no-call" was a proper application of the letter and intent of the rule - in the context of that game. Probably HTBT.

JMO.

JM