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I think it should be PSK but I can't prove it. Although I didn't get too far into the debate about it the other night, my colleague kept saying it can't be PSK because B doesn't have possession when the down ends. The actual wording is not the B has to have possession but rather that A does not have possession. But remember that "possession" (and that's the only word the rule uses) can mean player possession (which A does not have) and team possession (which they do).
So the question then becomes, does the illegal touching wipe off the 'validity' of the touchback? If it does, then we have PSK. If it doesn't, then we don't. I tend to believe that how can A be awarded 'possession' after an illegal touch? But until I have an AR or similar to go by, I can't argue with the letter of the law in Rule 10.
Thoughts?
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