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Originally Posted by crewumpires
IHSA rule set.
One out runner on first. Dropped third on Batter. R1 was stealing on pitch but had not reached 2nd at time of pitch.
I called batter out and left R1 on second. Can't find clarification in rules directly but I judged first base occupied until R1 successfully reached second base. I based this from the time of pitch.
Argument from coach was 1st was unoccupied since R1 was stealing.. and his batter should have been able to attempt 1st on DTS.
What say you?
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For future reference, TOP is when the pitcher begins his motion to pitch. This would also debunk a coach's argument that the runner was on 2nd before the pitch arrived at the plate, was swung at, ect.