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Originally Posted by canadaump6
8.05 Comment: b) With a runner on first base the pitcher may make a complete turn, without hesitating toward first, and throw to second. This is not to be interpreted as throwing to an unnoccupied base.
Some umpires in my association weren't sure what this wording implies. Does it mean that the pitcher can start his motion and wheel to second regardless of whether R1 is stealing? Or does R1 have to be stealing before he throws to second base?
One would think that everytime there is R1, 2 out and a 3-2 count, the pitcher would simply do his leg kick, then whirl around and throw out R1 at 2nd, but I never see this done.
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Suppose this CMT wasn't in the book. Then take this play: R1 only. F1 in set. R1 breaks for second (early). F1 turns counterclockwise past first and throws to second to retire R1. (The move F1 makes is the same as the "outside" move he might make if there was an R2, and is otherwise a legal move.).
WITHOUT the comment, too many players, coaches and even umpires would say that "F1 made a move toward first (the counterclockwise movement) and didn't throw to first, so it's a balk."
The CMT makes it clear that as long as there's not a step (or other "hesitation") to first as part of this move, the move is legal.