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Originally Posted by Mark Padgett
This is one rule that has absolutely no logical explanation behind it. If anyone can think of a reason for it, please post. The only thing I've ever heard is that in the NBA, it can make the game more exciting at the end and that's the point of the league. IOW, it's really the NBE. OK, I can buy that, I guess, but to use it at any "lower" level is just plain nuts.
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As always, I did wonder why the rule is there. The only reason that I could think of was exactly the reason you outlined: to make the end game more exciting.
As a precursor, TOs are granted when a TO opportunity exists and a coach has already made his/her TO request wish known to the table. The table then stops the clock and sounds the horn.
If a team is leading by a bunch, then they are not likely to call a timeout: they want the game to be over.
If a team is losing by a bunch, so far I have noticed that they don't really call timeouts, mostly because of the fact that they know they won't be winning: it seems that they are already conceeding.
If the game is closely contested, under 2 minutes, the clock stops on a made basket: they do have opportunity to steal the ball (and I've seen it work!). If there is no steal, then they can foul to put the opponents on the line, at which point they can request a TO during the dead ball period.
Personally, I support this rule. It has only increased the level of excitement in the end game. Is that bad for levels other than the NBA? I don't think so.