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Old Thu Jul 13, 2000, 07:23pm
Mark Padgett Mark Padgett is offline
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Join Date: Aug 1999
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quote:
Originally posted by mikesears:
Someone above quoted the first rule "once it leaves the hands". Can someone quote (or give the number) for the seoncd rule that is opposition to the first?


See PAULK1's July 11 post above for all rule references.

It appears from the two conflicting rules that he accurately quotes that the real answer would be that, once the ball is released by A1 toward the court, B1's hands may cross the line, but if his hands touch the ball before it crosses the line, it is a technical foul. This would be the interpretation you would get by taking the two rules together.

Of course the question then becomes: what is the purpose of allowing B1 to reach over the line at that point if he can't touch the ball? DUH!



[This message has been edited by Mark Padgett (edited July 14, 2000).]
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