[greymule]

I posted a similar play a few months ago, and the consensus on this site was different. I had runners on 1B and 2B, two out. Smash on a hop to F5, who steps on 3B just after runner on 2B trips over F6, 70 feet from 3B. In the actual game situation, I let the out stand and nobody squawked too much, but the feeling here was that the runner should have been awarded 3B, regardless of how obviously out he would have been (as long as the runner did not intentionally . . . etc.).

Freix, I'm not sure that in the play "acyrv" posted, "the obstructed runner is not being played upon at the time of the obstruction." F6 would probably have been throwing to 2B for the force, wouldn't he? I think of type B obstruction as something like B1 gets base hit, rounds first with no intent to go to 2B, and trips over F3 as F6 is receiving the ball at 2B.