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Old Mon Apr 07, 2008, 09:46pm
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Adam Adam is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by caliref
What about when Rush went in for a layup early in the game and the Memphis guy undercut Rush. Why no intentional Foul?
Let me ask a question. Why should it have been intentional? I didn't see it, but nothing you wrote here indicates it should have been intentional. Unless the rules are different in California.
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