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Old Tue Apr 01, 2008, 03:13pm
MrUmpire MrUmpire is offline
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Join Date: Jul 2004
Location: NY state
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mbyron
Running lane interference is an immediate dead ball, but I have to judge that there is interference before I call it. If the throw from F2 hits the BR and then is caught/gloved by F3 for the out, then I will not call interference (because there was none).
There could have been interference that the defense worked their way around, no?

Look at the new FED obstruction interpretation. Even if the runner managed to reach around and touch the back of a bag, if he was "denied access" to that portion of the bag closest to him, we have obstruction.

Why couldn't there be interference and yet an out?

I'm not a pro, but I was taught an immediate dead ball meant an immediate dead ball.
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