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Originally Posted by Robert E. Harrison
B1 executes a perfect bunt and runs all the way to 1st in fair territory. The catcher comes out and throws the ball over 1st baseman's head. What should be the determining factors as far as calling or not calling offensive interference?
Does the ball have to arrive before the runner? Does the ball have to hit the runner? Does the runner have to intentionally interfere with the play at first?
Thanks,
Robt/ SC
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Did the runner actually interfere? For example, if there was a clear throwing lane and F2 just blew it, I wouldn't like to see that called interference.