[GarthB]

Originally Posted by CO ump

Just show me one piece of research that speaks to this and has some credible insight into Cartwright' intent.It's easy to make universal statements, refer to unknown research and think the case is made.I'm simply reading the rule as written today and as written in 1845 and saying that the words as written allows for the statement "TIE goes to the runner" to be a true statement.Because it is a true statement I further proposed that it may very well have been intentional.It may or may not have been, but name calling doesn't prove that it wasn't and neither do vague statements about unknown research. Words mean things and absolutely no manipualting of the rule or word definitions are necessary for the statement "tie goes to the runner" to be accurate and true.When exactly did the TIE concept first emerge? I'm sorry, I never once saw the words "Did the runner beat the ball" in the original rules.If they intended for the "runner to beat the ball" would they not have said so?

Wow.

Where's that horse?