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Old Mon Mar 31, 2008, 01:13pm
CO ump CO ump is offline
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Join Date: Aug 2007
Posts: 179
Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins
1) 2) All the rules codes (OBR, NCAA and FED) have the same "error."

6) I agree that it's theoretically possible for the two separate events to happen at the same time. That theory, though, has no relevance to umpiring and no umpire worth his salt would rule one way on a "tie" at first and another way on a "tie" at second and certainly would NOT explain the ruling to the coaches that way.

FWIW



Since we all agree that rarely but occasionally there are coin flips, is it possible, that the rules makers oh so long ago wanted to give direction on this rare phenomenon.
It certainly would not have been credible to say if the defense makes a great play call the out or if BR hustles give him the call. They also may not have wanted to give the benefit 100% of the time to the offense or defense.
So based on the rules as written, benefit goes to BR at first.

At all other bases we'll give the nod to the defense, it may or may not be a 50/50 split but it's the best we can do to be fair to both sides in these coin flip situations.

The original rules makers may very well have intended to give direction for these coin flip situations.

Maybe the rules makers were not so naive, maybe there's only 233 mistakes and they knew there would be coin flip plays and were genius in how they wrote the basic rules of tags and force plays.

Certainly there is tradition that comes down thru the umpiring ranks that tends to dismiss these rules as written and comes at it with a little different philosophy, it works, it ain't broke and I'm not calling for a revolutionary change in philosophy.

However, the issue came up on the board and I think it shows extreme intolerance and maybe even insecurity to name call and attempt to bully someone off the board because they dare to look at a rule literally and discuss the original intent of the rule.

PS

After extensive research I've concluded that it was Alexander Cartwright who first coined the phrase "Tie goes to the runner" as he was briefing a rookie umpire in the spring of 1846.
And interestingly enough the Knickerbocker Rules support such a statement.
Nothing in those rules say anything about a runner beating the tag. Only one statement
"A player running the bases shall be out, if the ball is in the hands of an adversary on the base, or the runner is touched with it before he makes his base"

Do you think back in 1845 when they penned this rule that they realized ties were an impossibility?
I mean it was 1845, and certainly Evans wasn't around yet to make his scientific claims.

Last edited by CO ump; Mon Mar 31, 2008 at 01:29pm.
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