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Unless the runner was, in your judgment, attempting advance toward 3B this would be a balk. Without the runner advancing, the pitcher has stepped to an unoccupied base with no attempt to retire a runner there.
Even if the runner was advancing, I'd not allow him to throw to F6 unless F6 was closer to 3B than he was to 2B. If F6 is closer to 2B, then I'd rule he threw to 2B without first stepping there.
Now, if you intend to tell me that F6 was closer to 3B than he was to 2B......
then with the runner "in close proximity of F6" I'd say the judgment should be that R2 WAS advancing. If not, it would be the best leadoff I've ever seen in baseball.
Finally, all this is based on the thowing action concurrent with the step to the base. If F1 has legally stepped to either 2nd or 3rd base but did not throw concurrent with the stepping, he is allowed to continue to disengage and throw to whomever he desires, or he may choose to chase the runner.
Just my opinion,
Freix
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