[JRutledge]

So I guess when A1 is fouled by B1 (non-shooting foul) and immediately A1 takes a shot that is "practicing" to most of you. I look at "practicing" during dead balls, as them running a quick layup drill or shooting FTs during a timeout. 2-7-4 does not even have a casebook play that backs this up.

Now my question is to the rest of you, if this rule is clearly stated in your mind, why would you not give the kid a T? You are convinced he violated something, why not a T? I personally think your interpretation is a stretch. I do not think the intent of the rule was to prevent every single dead ball shot. Especially when the kid did not run after the ball, then put up a shot. I have seen this a 100 times on TV or in an actual game I am witnessing, and not a single official seems to address it. I feel because it does not violate the "spirit" of the rule. The "spirit" to me would be when a kid going after the ball and the official clearly avoiding the officials orders or demands and shooting FTs. That did not happen, the ball came right back to A1 and it was described that he immediately put up a shot.

I just do not see the injustice.

Peace