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OK, agree, but some tangents:
1) wondered all the way through how a runner at 1st interferes with a play in foul ground, but I guess if it might have landed near the base
2) if obvious in foul ground all the way, the runner probably did it deliberately; so is it also UC?
3) main Q, what if the INT occurs in foul ground but it ends up being a fair ball? To me, that's just the same as any other fair batted ball and the BR gets 1st, not a continued at bat.
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Officiating takes more than OJT.
It's not our jobs to invent rulings to fit our personal idea of what should and should not be.
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