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Originally Posted by BigGuy
So, if I understand this all correctly... the proverbial "train wreck" as it has been so eloquently described, theoretically no longer exists IF F3 does not possess the ball, right?
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Maybe ...
Certainly some of the FED literature says that it still can apply. OTher FED literature seems to imply it can't. What seems to matter is whether the "trainwreck" "denies the runner access to the base."
And I admit to not quite knowing how I'll apply that on the field.