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Old Fri Mar 14, 2008, 09:26am
AtlUmpSteve AtlUmpSteve is offline
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Join Date: Aug 2004
Location: Woodstock, GA; Atlanta area
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Did the action of the BR impede or hinder the opportunity of the fielder to make the play on the ball? Sounds like the definition of interference in the FED book.

Now I have two questions. 1) How do you KNOW there was NO intention by the BR to touch the ball? 2) Why should intent have any bearing? The physical act illegally hindered the defense.

In the real world, any time you hinder someone, you are liable. Change lanes and unintentionally cause a collision with the car you didn't see in your blind spot, and tell us if the police or the insurance companies give you a free pass because you didn't intend it.
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