[PeteBooth]

Originally posted by soonerfan

I ruled the runner safe given that I never actually saw that there was voluntary release to give the ball to the SS as the 2B's body blocked my view of the exchange. I know it is a kind of "had to see it" deal, however I felt that voluntary release came more into play than anything else. Your thoughts. JT

The Term Voluntary release is used to define a "catch vs. No catch"


From the definition of Catch in OBR rule 2 - definitions

In establishing the validity of the catch, the fielder shall hold the ball long enough to prove that he has complete control of the ball and that his release of the ball is voluntary and intentional.

Your situation has nothing to do with determining catch vs. no catch. The runner may indeed be safe but not for the reason you quoted.

This play IMO comes under the definition of TAG

OBR rule 2

A TAG is the action of a fielder in touching a base with his body while holding the ball securely and firmly in his hand or glove; or touching a runner with the ball, or with his hand or glove holding the ball, while holding the ball securely and firmly in his hand or glove.

As 2B steps on the bag and holds the ball out to be taken by the SS, the ball falls onto the ground.

This is where one would have to be there, but the question to be answered is:

In your judgement did F4 at the time of the touch of the second base bag hold the ball securely and firmly before he flipped the ball to F6? That's umpire judgement, however, in determining your ruling the term "voluntary realease" has nothing to do with it as this isn't a ctach vs. no catch situation. This is a TAG situatiuon (either the runner or the bag)

Pete Booth