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Originally Posted by UmpJM (nee CoachJM)
umpjong,
I have always been taught that the fielder's intent is irrelevant in determining whether obstruction has or has not occurred (although there are directives for considering the runner's intent in some situations).
What's your basis for considering the fielder's intent?
JM
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Umm, as JJ stated, its called umpiring
Intentional is also used in the definition of obstruction. If he is intentionally doing something to hinder the runner, this makes it even easier for me. Yes this a judgement call, but as JJ said, sometimes we have to umpire. This is no different than say, a catcher throwing his helmet/mask in the base line in hopes a runner trips of stammers because of it. Why would we not want to penalize the team trying to gain an advantage?