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Flip a coin next time and improve you odds of getting it right
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Originally Posted by ManInBlue
I don't follow your thought process at all. How do you get false out of this? We know the bunt is not an IFF, so you kill this immediately - thus making the statement TRUE. The ONLY time you would NOT kill it would be when the IFF is enforced. We agree that this sitch is NOT that time.
Let me rephrase it - If I posted on here the following question, how would you respond? "Runners on 1st and 2nd less than two outs. Batter attempts a bunt and pops it up. F1 drops the ball intentionally. Would this be an immediate dead ball?"
If you would answer "yes" to this proposed question, then the FED question is true. All I did was remove the ridiculous FED wording.
I follow your process right up until you get to claiming this to be false. Other than false being the answer that FED gives, I just can't see it being the correct answer, and your logic leads away from it as well.
How can the statement "It is an immediate dead ball when: with R1 & R2, less than two outs, a fielder intentionally drops a bunt attempt that is popped up on the infield" not be true?
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Dude,
What other questions did you miss? I see you're also having trouble grasping the whole "contacting the rubber" issue as well.
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I have nipples, Greg. Can you milk me?
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