Quote:
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Originally Posted by Smitty
I could see an argument that if two players are grasping the ball, prior to the moment that you determine it is a held ball, that they both have control. Just sayin'...
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How can there be an argument when the definition of a held ball says that
neither player is in control?
NFHS rule 4-25-1 says it's a held ball if
control cannot be
obtained without undue roughness.