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Old Fri Jan 25, 2008, 05:32pm
johnnyg08 johnnyg08 is offline
Stop staring at me swan.
 
Join Date: Jun 2006
Location: Minnesota
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BigGuy
So what's wrong with that statement? Tie does go to the runner. See FED 8.4.1f. By definition the fielder must make the play on the runner/batter-runner BEFORE they reach the respective base. A tie implies the same time. Of course there are those who say a tie isn't possible. They are two mutually exclusive events and can occur at the same time.

f. after a dropped third strike (see 8-4-1e) or a fair hit, if the ball held by any fielder touches the batter before the batter touches first base; or if any fielder, while holding the ball in his grasp, touches first base or touches first base with the ball before the batter-runner touches first base:
There are not ties, the runner is either safe or the runner is out. When the crowd "sees" a tie...many, many, times it's an out, because it's not really a tie. I think you might just be trying to stir the pot though...so I'm only partially biting.
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