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Originally Posted by BigGuy
So what's wrong with that statement?  Tie does go to the runner.  See FED 8.4.1f. By definition the fielder must make the play on the runner/batter-runner BEFORE they reach the respective base. A tie implies the same time. Of course there are those who say a tie isn't possible. They are two mutually exclusive events and can occur at the same time.
f. after a dropped third strike (see 8-4-1e) or a fair hit, if the ball held by any fielder touches the batter before the batter touches first base; or if any fielder, while holding the ball in his grasp, touches first base or touches first base with the ball before the batter-runner touches first base: |
The problem is that you didn't read 8.4.2
Art. 2... Any runner is out when he:
i.
does not retouch his base before a fielder tags him out or holds the ball while touching such base after any situation (8-2-1, 2-3 and 4). Umpire may also call him out at end of playing action upon proper and successful appeal. Also, it is not necessary for runner to retouch his base after a foul tip (2-16-2); or
j.
fails to reach the next base before a fielder either tags the runner out or holds the ball while touching such base, after runner has been forced from the base he occupied because the batter became a runner (with ball in play) when other runners were on first base, or on first and second, or on first, second and third. There shall be no accidental appeals on a force play.