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Old Fri Jan 25, 2008, 12:19pm
BigGuy
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Quote:
Originally Posted by johnnyg08
"Tie goes to the runner...you otta know that one by now blue!"
So what's wrong with that statement? Tie does go to the runner. See FED 8.4.1f. By definition the fielder must make the play on the runner/batter-runner BEFORE they reach the respective base. A tie implies the same time. Of course there are those who say a tie isn't possible. They are two mutually exclusive events and can occur at the same time.

f. after a dropped third strike (see 8-4-1e) or a fair hit, if the ball held by any fielder touches the batter before the batter touches first base; or if any fielder, while holding the ball in his grasp, touches first base or touches first base with the ball before the batter-runner touches first base:
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