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Originally Posted by jdw3018
Absolutely can. But that's not the scenario discussed...
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Didn't the original poster clarify that B Teams inbound play happened after A's made basket? So if that's the case, if B1 has the ball for a throw-in and passes this throw-in ball to B2 who has one foot inbound and one oob, then B2 can continue oob to complete the throw-in. So in this scenario, it does matter if B2 has one foot in and one out.