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that means, R2, 0 outs. F6 fields the ball and throws to F5 but the tag on R2 is late. F5 now fires to F3 but BR interferes by running inside the diamond. since the intervening play was not at homeplate R2 has go back to 2ndbase ?
Yes, according to Evans, under the definition of offensive interference. After presenting the intervening play at home and noting that the rule does score with subsequent BR INT (less than 2 out, of course), Evans says:
"A different ruling shall prevail if no play occurs at home plate prior to the batter runner's interference. In this case, the Note explaining offensive interference is valid, and all runners return to the bases last occupied at the time of the pitch."
[Bolding is mine.]
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greymule
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Roll Tide!
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