[PeteBooth]

Originally posted by PAblue87

What is the proper interpretation on a batter interfering with a catcher attempting to retire a stealing runner at 2nd. Does the catcher have to throw the ball in order to have interference, or can there be som sort of an attempt?

In order for interference to be called there has to be a play or attempted play. A play is defined by the act of the defense trying to put out a runner.

In your situation we do not need a throw, but we need some indication that F2 is making a play. In other words, has F2 come-up ready to throw or did F2 just stand there holding the ball.

If there was no play or attempted play then there is no interference.

Pete Booth