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why isn't the try to force R1 at 2nd not considered an intervening play ?
Because is not a play against the runner from 3B.
J/R [2002]: 13.IV.B.2
If a BR has not yet touched or passed 1B at TOI, all runners not out must return to their TOP base, with the following exceptions:
. . . If a runner from 3B has acquired home plate despite a play against him, and then INT occurs by the BR before he reaches 1B, the run is allowed to score, unless the INT was the third out. This is called the "intervening play."
So while the play at 2B in your situation is a sort of generic intervening play, it doesn't meet the above criteria. And the exception does apply only to a runner from 3B, no others.
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greymule
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Last edited by greymule; Thu Dec 13, 2007 at 12:00pm.
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