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Old Wed Dec 12, 2007, 03:48am
_Bruno_ _Bruno_ is offline
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Join Date: May 2007
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Quote:
Originally Posted by _Bruno_
and here's something even more strange :
" Normally, when a batter-runner makes the third out before reaching first base, no run can score. A routine ground ball to the infield or a squeeze play where no play is made at the plate are good examples. Bur the exception to the rule is when an intervening play takes place.

Let's say the Cardinals have the bases loaded with two outs when J.D. Drew taps to Cubs' pitcher Jon Lieber who throws home for an inning-ending force but Jim Edmonds, the runner on third, is called safe at home. Cubs' catcher Joe Girardi then throws to first to retire Drew for the third out. In the process, the ball hits Drew who is called out for running outside the runner's box the last 45 feet. In this case, Edmonds' run would count even though the batter-runner (Drew) made the third out before reaching first base.

Since the throw home to retire Edmonds was an intervening play and he was safe before Drew was ruled out, Edmonds' run counts. It's an unusual example of "time play" but another aspect of the rule that umpires must deal with."
the run does count, despite the BR beeing out by interference before he reaches 1stbase ????
STOP !! Rich Marazzi corrected himself and said that the run would score only with less then 2 outs, so forget about this (found that article a couple of minutes ago).

so back to intervening play. intervening play ONLY at homeplate or any other base ? what about R2, 0 outs. F6 fields the ball and throws to F5 but the tag on R2 is late. F5 now fires to F3 but BR interferes by running inside the diamond. since the intervening play was not at homeplate, can R2 stay on 3rd or has he go back to 2ndbase ?
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