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Originally Posted by canadaump6
R2. McCovey shift being played against the batter (hence no infielder playing even close to third). Hard hit ground ball hits R2. Nobody had a play on it. The ball did technically pass the first baseman, but he was all the way on the other side of the infield, and he was the only infielder it passed. Would this be interference? The reason I ask is because the rulebook says "touching or passing an infielder" and I am wondering if that takes into account passing an infielder who is in the immediate vicinity of the ball, or if it can mean any infielder no matter how far away he is from the ball.
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Somewhere along the line an umpire has to rely on common sense and not the typed words.