I understand the difference and that is my point - they are two different issues. I am just tossing out a thought. Let's say A1 jumps and shoots. Before A1 comes down and before he is fouled, A5 redirects the ball with a tap. After the tap occurs, the airborne shooter A1 is then fouled by B1.

Maybe that was not the OP dilemma. Maybe the shot hit A5's hand but it was not a tap. Dunno.

Assuming the first scenario, I may be wrong but here is what I think. The second A5 tapped, the official could assume the initial shot was unsuccessful since it had to be redirected by A5. Therefore the initial try had ended. However, until A1 returned to the floor he was still in the act of shooting. Since the A5 tap had started before the foul, the foul by B1 does not make the ball dead. A5 scores. A1 was in the act of shooting when fouled since he was still an airborne shooter. Score the basket and give A1 two free throws.

Now, I can't imagine this happenning, but what is wrong with that logic.