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Originally Posted by Nevadaref
JR, I believe that he is saying that the foul by A2 made the ball dead, not that the ball was already dead when the foul was committed.
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Cool. Now somebody 'splain to me that if the foul was for A2 shoving B2, and that foul by A2
made the ball
dead, then how can that foul can be a
technical foul?