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Originally Posted by MrUmpire
How has such a runner interfered if the fielder has the ball?
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Ex. Play at home, fast runner beats the throw sliding into catcher. Catcher who was waiting to catch the ball is knocked off his feet. Had collision not taken place, F2 would have caught the ball and baserunners would not have advanced an extra base safely. Old rule: nothing, trainwreck.
New rule suggests intereference. Because of the collision between runner and fielder, any subsequent play after the collision has been affected, thus the new possibility for interference. Defensive coach is screaming because his catcher was standing off the plate in fair territory. Oh, pooh.