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This one comes up from time-to-time and the play in question is being kicked around on several forums.
We have rules that clearly define when a batter is considered "in the box" prior to a pitch.
There are rules covering a batter being "in the box" when contacting a pitch with the bat.
But there isn't a rule that specifically defines what constitutes being "in the box" for a batter being contacted by his own batted ball.
A batter being contacted by his own batted ball while still being "in the box" is regarded as a foul ball- and he could be anywhere "in the box", despite McCarver's attempt to delineate a "fair" and "foul" portion of the box, which really doesn't apply on this play.
So what interpretation covers this? If the batter still has one foot in the box is he still regarded as being "in the box"? Does he need to have both feet in the box? Are the feet disregarded and the contact judged by any portion of the batter's body extending out beyond the boundary lines of the batter's box?
I'm guessing this is one of those interpretations covered by the professional umpire's manual- the one that I don't have any access to!
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