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Originally Posted by Splute
Is the scenario of A2 catching it in the backcourt giving it backcourt status really any different than if A2 caught it OOBs? A2 caused it to be OOB.... just my thoughts.... I do not have an issue with this Sit.
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Yes, completely different. It is not a violation to cause the ball to have backcourt status. If it were, it would be a violation for A (in the frontcourt) to lose control of the ball and have it bounce into the backcourt even without touching the ball again. Causing the ball to be OOB is a violation. Touching the ball after it goes into the backcourt is required for the violation (among other things), not just making have backcourt status.