My first reaction is that the ball should come back to the original throw-in spot. It would seem to me that when A2 touched the ball AFTER stepping OOB it is no different than if he had not touched the ball until after IT had touched out of bounds. In effect, since A2 had touched OOB, the ball was then OOB as soon as A2 touched it. Therefore, the ball was never touched before going OOB. I would have brought it back to the oringinal throw-in spot. Although I must admit there have been some good points brought up for the other side of this situation, specifically the rule stating that the thrower-in (sorry Mark) is to throw the ball so that it is touched or touched by a player (inbounds or out of bounds) before going out of bounds untouched. This rule would almost seem to contradict itself. How can a player cause the ball to be OOB if he touches the ball while he is also OOB and the ball was never inbounds to begin with. I'm looking forward to some additional responses on this topic.
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