[greymule]

B1 singles. With B2 due to bat, B5 bats, and homers. B3 bats and strikes out. B4 bats and singles. B5 is now the next legal batter.

Rationale: once B4 bats, that legalizes B3. The proper batter after B4 is B5, even if B5 batted out of order earlier in the inning.

I think we could all agree on that. I think we could also agree that if B5 singled instead of homered, and then B3 struck out and B4 singled, with B5 taking 3B, we would skip over B5 (since he is on base), and B6 would bat. This of course assumes no appeal of BOO.

However, what if B5 (batting instead of B2) struck out, and then the defense appealed BOO? B2 is out, B5's out stands, and B3 is the batter. B3 and B4 then hit singles. I would say that B5 is up, even though he made an out earlier in the inning.

This is because B5 batted when B2 was due up. If B5 had batted when B4 was due up, and made an out, and then the defense appealed BOO, then B4 would be out, B5's out would stand, and in this one situation, when B5 would now be the proper batter, we skip over him.

At least that's the way I read it.