Originally Posted by
PeteBooth
Therefore, if F1 is taking "pitching" signs from F2 while his pivot foot is NOT in contact with the Rubber, then it is an illegal act on the part of F1 otherwise why have the rule to begin with.
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Originally Posted by kylejt
Why indeed.
It's the first instance of the term "pitching signs" that I've heard of.
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While the others blubber and spout on like whales, now we can get to serious, useful discussion. Is there an interp which says, no rule does, that appearing to be taking signs = taking signs. Appears to be a judgment, ok, if an ump wants go go that route, more power to him.
Wait....a flash....
...what if the signs are coming from the bench? Or there are no signs at all? Or.........
