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Old Fri Aug 24, 2007, 12:54pm
Nevadaref Nevadaref is offline
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Join Date: Nov 2002
Posts: 15,015
Quote:
Originally Posted by Ref in PA
Here is my interpretation - for what it is worth

A. Violation. Team A has control. The ball obtains front court status when it hits the ref who is standing in front court. When A4 touches the ball, the ball has backcourt status again.
Did you notice that A2 threw the pass, but A4 is the one who eventually received it?
You are applying 9-9-2 to the team, when the rule is clearly written for "a player."
Also, you can't apply 9-9-1 since no player touched the ball in the frontcourt and that is part of that rule.

So my point is that if the play is not a violation under either of those two articles, what justification is there for calling one?
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