Quote:
|
Originally Posted by bob jenkins
exactly. And, by similar measures play 2 should be a violation as well. That said, I seem to remember someone writing Mary Strukhoff about this (second)play and she intoned that it was not a violation, and indicated that it would be reviewed at the rules meeting. Maybe we'll see something in the new rules / case books.
|
Why? Don't they have to touch it in the backcourt for it to be a violation? Doesn't the ball have to have backcourt status? In case 2 neither has occurred. The ball has re-established frontcourt status and player A1 has touched it in the frontcourt.
Where's the violation?