[Jurassic Referee]

Originally Posted by rainmaker

Thinking about this play...

If the ref thought that B pushed or bumped the non-shooter just to bump the shooter and stop the shot, could the ref call it intentional? Seems to me it's extremely unfair that that shot can be taken away, and the penalty is as if it wasn't on the shot. I mean if B fouls the shooter directly, shooter gets to shoot. So if the ref thought it was just a non-basketball play, so to speak, wouldn't it be reasonable to call it intentional?

Most intentional fouls are judgment calls. You apply the same criteria to all of them...i.e. was the foul committed to gain an unfair advantage?