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Originally Posted by NCASAUmp
Same as dead ball, but no verbal call. Isn't that obvious?
Only when I see a point to asking why. Why do you get 2 bases from point of release on an overthrow? Because that's what ASA wants. Do I need a reason? No. I call what they want me to call.
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Well, you cited page 225 so:
It defines NO "non verbal dead ball call" but adds "followed by a verbal or strike call".
So your question "Isn't that obvious " begs an answer.
Do you have one?
And, for the last time, why should stealing be denied just because the ball did not cross the plate?
You can feel free to give us an opinion regardless of the thinkning of ASA.
You are an umpire I presume, not a clone.