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GENTLEMEN OF BLUE:
Once again this issue surfaces. The question deals with when is the pitcher (RH in this case) committed to pitch to the batter and unable to attempt a pick-off at first base (balk).
RH pitcher, with runner on first, comes to a complete and discernible stop. He then raises his 'free non-pivot' foot straigt up in the air and follows that action by truning and throwing to first. There is no detectable motion of this raised led towards home plate before going to first with his step and throw.
According to Carl's BRD (TWENTIETH EDITION) 383 "time of pitch" definition: this appears to be a legal move. It states, "FED: The time of pitch occurs: (1) in the SET POSITION: when the pitcher seperates his hands before delivering;" OBR point in not covered. Additionally, in Carl's BRD 381 "AO 18-381: J/R: Treat as in FED. (102) Note 374 which speaks about a 'double set' being prohibited by 8.05a, there is the following information: "...standard interpertation that F1 commits to pitch in the set position when "he shows movement towards home plate."
I read this as stating that if F1 raises his leg, but does not seperated his hands prior to going to first base, then the move is legal. If the hands get seperated while the leg is in the air, then F1 may only go to the batter or we have a balk.
All this seems to validate the move as legal.
Is this so?
Are there any additional interpertations to further clarify this issue?
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Ed
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