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Originally Posted by just another ref
We have definite knowledge that no time elapsed between the touch the kick, as they were one and the same. So, we should put the .5 back on the clock and do it again, should we not?
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What definite knowledge do you have and where did you get it from?
What reason(s) do you have to ignore the specific language of R5-9-4 that says that the clock starts on a throw-in when the ball touches or is touched by a player on the court.
Iow, cite some actual rules that will back up your contentions.
Btw, if the official doesn't start the clock, the timer can start it instead under R5-9-1. If the timer did start it under 5-9-1, where is the timer's mistake needed to make a clock adjustment?