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Originally Posted by ozzy6900
Why has this question come up?
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Ozzy, a coach had asked me about any rule which dictates where the runner may lead. He explained a situation in which a coach had R1 lead at a 45 degree angle toward RF (I couldn't figure out why you'd want to do this)! Since I've never seen or heard of doing this, does R1 have to come in to re-establish the baseline between 1B and 2B on a batted ball?