View Single Post
  #4 (permalink)  
Old Sun Jul 29, 2007, 04:59pm
SanDiegoSteve SanDiegoSteve is offline
Senior Member
Join Date: Oct 2005
Location: Lakeside, California
Posts: 6,724
Originally Posted by BigUmp56
It seems like a clear case of obstruction to me, but the umpires concluded that obstruction cannot occur after a runner has passed the plate. Is there any interpretation that would substantiate their claim?
I don't think the umpires are right in this interpretation. If F2 was not in the act of receiving a throw, he can't block the base, no matter which side the runner is coming from. Like Larry said, what would stop the catchers out there from tackling the runner if this were the case?
Matthew 15:14, 1 Corinthians 1:23-25
Reply With Quote