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Originally Posted by BigUmp56
It seems like a clear case of obstruction to me, but the umpires concluded that obstruction cannot occur after a runner has passed the plate. Is there any interpretation that would substantiate their claim?
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I don't think the umpires are right in this interpretation. If F2 was not in the act of receiving a throw, he can't block the base, no matter which side the runner is coming from. Like Larry said, what would stop the catchers out there from tackling the runner if this were the case?