[BretMan]

Both situations are covered by the rules pertaining to runners hit by fair batted balls.

In situation #1 you have a fair batted ball as the ball was first touched by a defender over fair ground. That the runner was over foul ground when touched is irrelevant.

Fielder position in relation to the runner is not relevant either. This is a deflected ball (it deflected off of the fielder into the runner). The runner would only be out if the contact was intentional (with either the ball or another fielder who could make a play- unlikely in this scenario).

In #2, you also have a fair batted ball (it landed fair past third base). The rule about the ball having passed an infielder would come into play on this one.

As long as the runner did not intentionally contact the ball, and no other fielder had a chance to make a play (also unlikely in this scenario), the runner would not be out.

Do you think there is something special about the fact that the runner on these plays was hit while over foul ground, or are those just "red herrings" to throw us off the track?